Rasmussen NUR 2407 - Which adjustment in pain medication may be needed for an elderly person with elevated liver
1. Which adjustment in pain medication may be needed for an elderly person with elevated liver enzymes due to anticonvulsant therapy?
A higher dose should be used with the same time schedule due to excessive enzyme counts.
The time between doses should be expanded to allow for metabolism in hepatic dysfunction.
The medication should be crushed to facilitate more rapid metabolism
The time between doses should be shortened. Elevated enzyme counts will speed metabolism
1. The nurse reads that the half-life or morphine is roughly 3 hours. How would the nurse use this information to decide if it is safe to give Morphine every 3 hours as needed for pain?
The half-life of Morphine shouldn't be an issue here. Pain alone should determine the interval.
The half-life for Morphine shortens in states of dependence. It will be needed more often.
The half-life of Morphine shortens over time as the liver becomes familiar with the drug.
The half-life of Morphine would be longer in hepatic insufficiency. The drug would accumulate.
1. A client with persistent pain due to cancer is brought to the emergency department by his spouse. Upon assessment, the nurse notes pinpoint pupils and a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute. The nurse should immediately prepare for administration of which medication?
1. A nurse is providing client education about the use of a fentanyl transdermal delivery system. Which of these statements would indicate accurate understanding of self-care expectations?
Massage the patch whenever pain occurs
Always apply the patch to the same spot on your skin
Change the patch every 72 hours
Driving is safe when using this form of narcotic
1. What next after giving a young man Dilaudid (hydromorphone) for migraine?
Awaken him to assess his pain level.
Explain the risks of Dilaudid (after giving it)
Offer him something to eat.
Provide a restful, dimly lit environment.
1. Sumatriptan (Imitrex) is ordered for an elderly client experiencing a migraine. The nurse understands that triptans are contraindicated in which condition?
Chronic Lung disease
Irritable bowel syndrome
1. A client is returning to the clinic for follow-up related to elevated liver enzymes. Which of the following medications on the client's medication list would concern the nurse the most?
Vitamin C prn for cold symptoms
Acetaminophen as needed for pain
Ibubrofen three times a day
1. A client taking paroxetine (Paxil), a serotonin reuptake inhibitor for post-traumatic stress disorder, calls the clinic complaining of confusion, restlessness and fever. What should the nurse reply?
Tell him to seek a haloperidol (Haldol) prescription from an urgent care doctor.
Have him talk to his doctor before taking any more Paxil. These are signs of serotonin toxicity.
Have him submit a urine specimen. He is at risk for drug induced urine retention, and UTI.
Explain to the client that these are expected antidepressant side effects that will subside with time.
1. A client taking amitriptyline (a tricyclic antidepressant) complains of having blurred vision and dry mouth, and he states that he hasn't had a bowel movement in 3 days, whereas he normally has one daily. His vital signs are temperature 97.6° F, pulse 90/minute, blood pressure 130/79 mm Hg, and respirations 20/minute. Based on this assessment, the nurse should suspect which of the following causes?
1. A client experiencing loss of libido wants to know why he was started on citalopram, an SSRI, rather than one of the other types of anti-depressants?" Which response would be most appropriate?
"Probably it is the only medication that your insurance will pay for"
"I can't begin to guess what your doctor was thinking. You need to ask him."
"SSRIs have fewer side effects than other antidepressants. Should I mention the concern to your provider?"
"Medications like Celexa work much faster than the other medications"
1. A depressed client is being started on phenelzine (Nardil), a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor. Which statement shows he knows the needed self-care precautions?
"Nardil causes memory problems, but I can take Ginseng to help with that."
"I can't drink alcohol, but caffeinated drinks and hot chocolate are fine."
"I can have pizza as long as there is no sausage on it."
"When I go to cookouts this summer I should eat chicken instead of hotdogs."
1. A client who started an antidepressant 1 week ago tells his nurse, "I really don't think this medication is helping me." Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
"Why do you think the medication is not helping you?"
"What were you hoping would happen?"
"You need to come to the clinic so we can discuss this."
"It can take weeks for antidepressants to work. How are you doing?"
1. A friend of a nurse who is being treated for anxiety with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor wants to know why Zoloft (sertraline) is better for controlling anxiety than a benzodiazepine. Which of the following is the nurse's best response?
"Zoloft is better for the control of physical symptoms of anxiety than benzodiazepines."
"Zoloft provide a more rapid and durable response to the uncomfortable anxiety symptoms."
"Benzodiazepines currently have no role in the treatment of anxiety."
"Zoloft is better for reducing cognitive symptoms of anxiety than benzodiazepines."
1. The client has been prescribed clozapine (Clozaril), an atypical antipsychotic. Which laboratory finding should the nurse watch closely, since it may be altered by this medication?
The client's thyroid level
The client's WBC count
The client's albumin level
The client's arterial blood gases
1. A client who has been taking haloperidol (Haldol), a traditional antipsychotic, is now to complaining of severe muscle spasms of the neck and back. Based on these manifestations, which of these prn prescriptions could the nurse offer to help stop the symptoms?
1. A client who was involved in a motor vehicle accident comes into the ER distraught and complaining of leg pain. Knowing that the client is experiencing a stress response to trauma, what signs or symptoms would the nurse expect to see?
A decrease in serum glucose
Elevated pulse and respirations
Hyperactive bowel sounds
1. An elderly person is being assessed for repeated falls. Which of their medicines increases that risk? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
Halcion (triazolam), a benzodiazepine for sleep
Acetaminophen (APAP), a peripheral analgesic for back pain
OxyContin (oxycodone), an opiate for back pain
Lyrica (pregabalin), a GABA sustainer for nerve pain
Capsaicin cream for local control of back pain
1. The nurse is preparing to administer lithium (Eskalith), to a client with bipolar disorder whose lithium level is 2.0 mEq/L. What symptoms might the nurse expect to see? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.)
Irregular heart rate
1. Which of these effects of opiate analgesics should be considered when formulating a client care plan? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
1. Aspirin could be detrimental in which of these situations? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
Client also takes anticoagulants
Client is also pregnant
Client also has rheumatoid arthritis
Client also has a peptic ulcer
Client is a child with a fever
Which statement is NOT true regarding spinal nerves
Which statement is NOT true regarding spinal nerves?
A. The ventral root of the spinal nerve will contain motor fibers (axons) that innervate the skeletal muscles
B. Each spinal nerve is associated with a specific dermatome
C. All 31 spinal nerves contain thousands of individual nerve fibers (axons) carrying information to and from the spinal cord
D. Spinal nerves only innervate the skin, muscles and joints
Which of the following choices is NOT an effect of the sympathetic nervous system?
A. Decreased blood flow to the gastrointestinal system while increasing blood flow to the skeletal muscles
B. Increased heart rate
C. Constriction of the pupils
D. Increased blood pressure
Which two major nerves are associated or represent sensory (touch) information of the hand?
A. Ulnar and Medial nerves
B. Radial and Medial nerves
C. Ulnar and Radial nerves
D. Axillary and Ulnar nerves
Referred pain is when the body perceives somatic pain as visceral pain?
Which type of sensory receptor will detect the sensation of pain?
What statement is false regarding the sympathetic nervous system?
A. Prepares the body for “fight or flight” activities/responses
B. The postganglionic fibers are all very short in length when compared to the postganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system
C. The preganglionic axons originate from the thoracic and lumbar region of the spinal cord
D. All of the preganglionic axons pass through the superior cervical ganglion
Which of the following choices is NOT true regarding reflexes?
A. Somatic reflexes activate skeletal muscle
B. The stretch or tendon reflexes are commonly performed during a physical examination
C. Neural integration (processing) of all reflexes occurs in the brain
D. The sensory neuron of a reflex arc transmit afferent impulses to the spinal cord
Which major nerve is associated or represents the largest and thickest nerve in the body and almost innervates the entire lower limb?
A. Sacral nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Axillary nerve
D. Sciatic nerve
Which cranial nerve is associated or represents a majority of its innervation to be parasympathetic in its action and innervates a wide variety of internal organs including the heart, lungs, intestines and liver?
A.CN V: Trigeminal nerve
B. CN X: Vagus nerve
C. CN IX: Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. CN IV: Trochlear nerve
The majority of the cranial nerves originate from the brain stem?
Which cranial nerve is associated or represents sensory information of most of the face, assists in innervating the muscles of mastication and is divided into three divisions?
A.CN VII: Facial nerve
B. CN XI: Accessory nerve
C. CN V: Trigeminal nerve
D. CN XII: Hypoglossal nerve
A ganglia is a collection of nerve cell bodies within the peripheral nervous system?
Which statement is NOT true regarding a nerve?
A. A nerve itself is surrounded by an outer protective covering called the epineurium
B. Can contain hundreds and thousands of individual fibers (axons) of neurons
C. Nerves can always repair themselves no matter the damage or trauma
D. Can contain sensory (afferent) and motor (efferent) nerve fibers (axons)
Which of the following choices is NOT an effect of the parasympathetic nervous system?
A. Stimulates elimination of wastes such as feces and urine
B. Dilation of the bronchi in the lungs to increase airflow
C. Gastrointestinal system function is activated and increased to digest food
D. Decreased blood pressure
A lower motor neuron damage occurs will cause hyporeflexia?
Which of the following choices best describes dopamine
Which of the following choices best describes dopamine
Question 1 (5 points)
Which of the following choices best describes dopamine?
Question 1 options:
A substance that is naturally found in the brain.
An illegal drug that can cause great damage.
A receptor molecule that is found on neurons.
A protein that stimulates neurons to grow.
Question 2 (5 points)
Which receptors respond to a scraped knee?
Question 2 options:
Question 3 (5 points)
Which of the following is true about muscle tone?
Question 3 options:
It increases with age.
It is responsible for keeping the back and legs straight when you're relaxed.
It decreases as you exercise more.
It describes the relaxing of some muscles.
Question 4 (5 points)
Which diagram in the figure below shows an example of a joint involved in lifting your arms above your head?
Question 4 options:
Question 5 (5 points)
Which structure in the figure below is commonly injured by people inserting cotton swabs or other objects into their ears?
Question 5 options:
Question 6 (5 points)
The heart, liver, and stomach are each examples of
Question 6 options:
an organ system.
Question 7 (5 points)
What begins when a neuron is stimulated by another neuron or by a stimulus in the environment?
Question 7 options:
a resting potential
Question 8 (5 points)
Read the following statements that describe how information flows in the nervous system. What is the correct order in which they occur?
1) Response is carried to glands or muscles.
2) Information is gathered.
3) Information is processed and a response is formed.
Question 8 options:
Question 9 (5 points)
What is the function of the central nervous system?
Question 9 options:
to process information and form a response
to gather information
to receive stimuli from the environment
to carry a response to glands and muscles
Question 10 (5 points)
Refer to the figure below. Which structure carries impulses away from the cell body?
Question 10 options:
Question 11 (5 points)
Which of the following sensory receptors would lead you to squint in bright light?
Question 11 options:
Question 12 (5 points)
An imbalance in blood glucose levels causes which of the following diseases?
Question 12 options:
Question 13 (5 points)
The most important function of the skin is
Question 13 options:
Question 14 (5 points)
When an impulse reaches the end of a neuron, it triggers the release of
Question 14 options:
Question 15 (5 points)
Which of the following is the correct order from most complex to simplest for the levels of organization in the human body?
Question 15 options:
organ systems, organs, tissues, cells
organ systems, tissues, organs, cells
cells, organs, organ systems, tissues
cells, tissues, organs, organ systems
Question 16 (5 points)
What do ligaments hold together in a joint?
Question 16 options:
bone and muscle
cartilage and bone
Question 17 (5 points)
Nail roots are to nails as what is to hair?
Question 17 options:
Question 18 (5 points)
In the kidneys, both useful substances and wastes are removed from the blood by
Question 18 options:
Question 19 (5 points)
It's 7:00 at night and you haven't eaten anything since lunch. Which part of your brain is telling you that you're hungry?
Question 19 options:
Question 20 (5 points)
Sensory cells in taste buds respond to which types of flavors?
Question 20 options:
fatty, sweet, meaty, tangy, salty
salty, spicy, juicy, sweet, tangy
sour, tangy, spicy, bitter, sweet
salty, bitter, sweet, sour, umami
Portfolio which illustrates your career path to date and which captures your careers gaols and aspirations. 2000 words: 100% plag free
Design and create a portfolio which illustrates your career path to date and which captures your careers goals and aspirations.
• Narrative, academically underpinned (referenced) for each piece of evidence.
• A timeline which charts your career development to date and beyond
• A curriculum vitae
• A covering letter
• SWOT analysis
• A job market rationale which illustrates your understanding of the skills need to undertake your chosen career path. Identify geographic locations, role types etc that you want to consider
• Skills audit
• Identify 5 Internship/career opportunities – supply relevant application information (advertisements, dated) as evidence
• Critically discuss your future career goals
• References must be used throughout the portfolio to support each area as listed above.
Useful Web Sites
Department for Education and Skills: http://www.dfes.gov.uk/index.shtml
Department of Trade and Industry: http://www.dti.gov.uk/er/individual.htm
Chartered Institute for Personnel and Development (CIPD) http://www.cipd.co.uk/
Department of Culture, Media & Sport - http://www.culture.gov.uk/
Investors in People UK – http://www.iipuk.co.uk
Institute of Leisure and Amenity Management - http://www.ilam.co.uk/
Institute of Sport and Recreation Management – http://www.isrm.co.uk.
Skills Active www.skillsactive.org.uk
Trade Union Congress.http://www.tuc.org.uk
Glassdoor.com. (2018). English-Chinese Translator Jobs https://www.glassdoor.com/Job/bali- Chinese-translator-jobs-SRCH_IL.0,4_IS4968_KO5,23.htm
Lee-Ross, D. (2010). Human Resources and Tourism: skills culture and industry. Bristol: Channel View.
Which organ is responsible for the release of sodium bicarbonate, a chemical needed to neutralize stomach acid?
Question1. Which organ is responsible for the release of sodium bicarbonate, a chemical needed to neutralize stomach acid?
a. The stomach
b. The Duodenum
c. The Liver
d. The Gallbladder
e. The Pancreas
Which of the following is known as an accessory organ in the digestive process?
a. The Heart
b. The Duodenum
c. The Kidney
d. The Gallbladder
e. The Lungs
What happens mostly in the large intestine (colon)?
a. Vitamins and minerals are absorbed
b. Water is absorbed
c. Amino acids are absorbed
d. Glucose is absorbed
e. Fiber is absorbed.
What is true about fat absorption?
a. It occurs in the ascending colon.
b. It is aided by emulsification with bile.
c. It is released into the blood stream as VLDL.
d. It requires amylase action on the glycerol backbone.
e. All of the above
Which type of absorption mechanism requires a selective protein carrier and ATP energy?
a. Facilitated diffusion
b. Passive diffusion
c. Active transport
d. Passive transport
e. Nutrient activity
What happens first, protein denaturation or protein digestion?
a. Protein denaturation
b. Protein digestion
What is the correct process of protein synthesis?
a. DNA is transcribed to mRNA which is translated to Protein.
b. mRNA is transcribed to DNA which is translated to Protein
c. Protein is transcribed to mRNA which is translated to DNA
d. Protein is transcribed to DNA which is translated to mRNA
e. DNA is transcribed to Protein which is translated to mRNA.
High protein diets can deplete the body of:
c. Vitamin B6
d. All of the above.
Lactase persistence is tied to human biocultural evolution.
Protein need is based on body:
c. Caloric need
d. CHO adequacy
e. Nutrient density
Kwashiorkor is best described as:
a. Fibrous proteins
b. High biological value protein sources
c. Complementary protein sources
d. Lack of protein and energy in the diet
e. Lack of protein in the diet
_________ decreases transit time.
b. Insoluble Fiber
d. Allergen (Antigen)
Proteins can be of two basic types:
a. DNA and RNA
b. Antibodies and Antigens
c. Enzymes and Hormones
d. Simple and Complex
e. Fibrous and Globular
Which of the following is a protein component in food causing allergy?
b. Insoluble Fiber
d. Allergen (Antigen)
_________ are proteins produced by immune cells.
b. Insoluble Fiber
d. Allergen (Antigen)
_________ is a risk factor for heart disease.
b. Insoluble Fiber
d. Allergen (Antigen)
Which of the following statements is true regarding metabolism?
a. Homeostasis involves a balance of anabolic and catabolic reactions.
b. Homeostasis causes weight gain.
c. Catabolic reactions involve condensation reactions.
d. Anabolic reactions cause tissue degradation.
e. Enzymatic digestion of proteins to amino acids involves anabolic reactions.
_________ increase low density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol levels.
c. Elevated intakes of saturated fatty acids
d. Aerobic physical activities
e. Omega-3 fatty acids
_________ prevents oxidation reactions.
c. Elevated intakes of saturated fat
d. Aerobic physical activities
e. Omega-3 fatty acids
_________ increases high density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol levels.
a. Triglycerides and folic acid
b. Antioxidants like vitamin E and C
c. Elevated intakes of saturated fat
d. Aerobic physical activities and Omega-3 fatty acids
_________ has anti-inflammatory effects in the body.
c. Elevated intakes of saturated fat
d. Aerobic physical activities
e. Omega-3 fatty acids
a. A natural selection advantage
b. Prevented by frequent and regular alcohol consumption.
c. Not caused by unhealthy diet and lifestyle factors.
d. Promoted by phytochemicals.
e. A disease characterized by uncontrolled cell growth.
_________ can bind to fat, cholesterol, and bile in the gastrointestinal tract.
d. Soluble fiber
Which lipoprotein contains the most cholesterol?
a. The diagnostic criteria for diabetes.
b. Characterized by low blood sugar.
c. A leading cause of atherosclerosis.
d. The reason for lactose intolerance.
e. An enzyme that catabolizes starch.
Most vitamin and minerals are absorbed in the ______________.
d. Small intestine
Which of the following is largely produced by plants during photosynthesis?
In whole grain processing, the amount of _________ is/are decreased.
d. Fiber, vitamin and mineral content are all reduced by whole grain processing.
Which of the following provides the best food source of fiber?
b. Soybean oil
d. White rice
e. Whole Milk
The central nervous system prefers _____________ for energy to function optimally.
a. Fatty acids
b. Ketone bodies
e. Amino acids
Omega-3 fatty acids may help to protect against:
c. Type I Diabetes
d. Kidney Failure
e. Heart Disease
The special proteins that drive chemical reactions are:
Which of the following foods is an example of a wholesome but low quality protein source?
a. Vegetable oil
A person who has gastrointestinal distress after drinking milk most likely:
a. Is missing the enzyme lactase.
b. Has type 2 diabetes.
c. Produces lipoproteins against the milk.
d. Is experiencing autoimmunity.
e. Is having a hydrogenation reaction.
Which of the following statements is true about lipoproteins?
a. HDL removes cholesterol from the bloodstream
b. High HDL values increase atherosclerosis.
c. Diet has no influence HDL levels
d. Diets high in saturated fat are protective against heart disease.
e. Elevated LDL cholesterol in the blood is protective against heart disease.
Trans fatty acids:
a. Contain a single double bond
b. Reduce heart disease risk.
c. May be found in processed foods
d. Are abundant in most fruits
e. All of the above
Which of the following statements is true about fiber?
a. Fiber is found in plant and animal foods.
b. Fiber increases caloric density of the diet.
c. Fiber hardens stool.
d. Fiber binds some vitamins and minerals.
e. Insoluble fiber dissolves in water.
Soluble fibers include:
a. Pectin, lignin, mucilage.
b. Pectin, gum, mucilage.
c. Pectin, lignin, gel.
d. Cellulose, hemicellulose, lignin.
e. Cellulose, hemicellulose, agar.
Which of the following statements is true about enzymes?
a. Enzymes require essential fatty acids as coenzymes.
b. Enzymes can require vitamin or mineral cofactors for their function.
c. Enzymes are chemicals secreted from endocrine glands into the blood.
d. Enzymes are carbohydrate based substances.
e. All of the above
Not yet answered
Marked out of 1.00
Type 1 diabetes is:
a. A genetic disease caused by autoimmunity and a lack of insulin production.
b. The build-up of homocysteine in the blood.
c. A type of anemia common among vegetarians.
d. A diet-related disease in which insulin resistance occurs.
e. A communicable disease.
Not yet answered
Marked out of 1.00
Lyla is a 23 year old single mom. She developed gestational diabetes during her pregnancy. Her child is now two years old. Lyla is 5 foot 7 inches tall and she weighs 167 pounds. Her waist measurement is 37 inches. Her lab values include; a fasting blood sugar level of 115mg/dl, her total blood cholesterol was 227mg/dl and her blood pressure was 137/87mmHg. She consumes on the average 2,450 Calories, 26 grams of dietary fiber, and 26 grams of saturated fat. TRUE or FALSE, Lyla could improve her health by following the Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes (TLC) Diet.
Lyla is a 23 year old single mom. She developed gestational diabetes during her pregnancy. Her child is now two years old. Lyla is 5 foot 7 inches tall and she weighs 167 pounds. Her waist measurement is 37 inches. Her lab values include; a fasting blood sugar level of 115mg/dl, her total blood cholesterol was 227mg/dl and her blood pressure was 137/87mmHg. She consumes on the average 2,450 Calories, 26 grams of dietary fiber, and 26 grams of saturated fat. TRUE or FALSE, Lyla has normal blood pressure.
Lyla is a 23 year old single mom. She developed gestational diabetes during her pregnancy. Her child is now two years old. Lyla is 5 foot 7 inches tall and she weighs 167 pounds. Her waist measurement is 37 inches. Her lab values include; a fasting blood sugar level of 115mg/dl, her total blood cholesterol was 227mg/dl and her blood pressure was 137/87mmHg. She consumes on the average 2,450 Calories, 26 grams of dietary fiber, and 26 grams of saturated fat. TRUE or FALSE, Lyla meets the diagnostic criteria of Metabolic Syndrome.
Lyla is a 23 year old single mom. She developed gestational diabetes during her pregnancy. Her child is now two years old. Lyla is 5 foot 7 inches tall and she weighs 167 pounds. Her waist measurement is 37 inches. Her lab values include; a fasting blood sugar level of 115mg/dl, her total blood cholesterol was 227mg/dl and her blood pressure was 137/87mmHg. She consumes on the average 2,450 Calories, 26 grams of dietary fiber, and 26 grams of saturated fat. TRUE or FALSE, Lyla may have Type 1 Diabetes.
Lyla is a 23 year old single mom. She developed gestational diabetes during her pregnancy. Her child is now two years old. Lyla is 5 foot 7 inches tall and she weighs 167 pounds. Her waist measurement is 37 inches. Her lab values include; a fasting blood sugar level of 115mg/dl, her total blood cholesterol was 227mg/dl and her blood pressure was 137/87mmHg. She consumes on the average 2,450 Calories, 26 grams of dietary fiber, and 26 grams of saturated fat. TRUE or FALSE, Lyla's Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) for fiber is 28 grams.
Lyla is a 23 year old single mom. She developed gestational diabetes during her pregnancy. Her child is now two years old. Lyla is 5 foot 7 inches tall and she weighs 167 pounds. Her waist measurement is 37 inches. Her lab values include; a fasting blood sugar level of 115mg/dl, her total blood cholesterol was 227mg/dl and her blood pressure was 137/87mmHg. She consumes on the average 2,450 Calories, 26 grams of dietary fiber, and 26 grams of saturated fat. TRUE or FALSE, Lyla consumed 76% of her Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) for fiber.
Lyla is a 23 year old single mom. She developed gestational diabetes during her pregnancy. Her child is now two years old. Lyla is 5 foot 7 inches tall and she weighs 167 pounds. Her waist measurement is 37 inches. Her lab values include; a fasting blood sugar level of 115mg/dl, her total blood cholesterol was 227mg/dl and her blood pressure was 137/87mmHg. She consumes on the average 2,450 Calories, 26 grams of dietary fiber, and 26 grams of saturated fat. TRUE or FALSE, Lyla consumed less than 7% of her Calories from saturated fat.
Lyla is a 23 year old single mom. She developed gestational diabetes during her pregnancy. Her child is now two years old. Lyla is 5 foot 7 inches tall and she weighs 167 pounds. Her waist measurement is 37 inches. Her lab values include; a fasting blood sugar level of 115mg/dl, her total blood cholesterol was 227mg/dl and her blood pressure was 137/87mmHg. She consumes on the average 2,450 Calories, 26 grams of dietary fiber, and 26 grams of saturated fat. TRUE or FALSE, Lyla's total blood cholesterol is in the borderline high risk category.
Lyla is a 23 year old single mom. She developed gestational diabetes during her pregnancy. Her child is now two years old. Lyla is 5 foot 7 inches tall and she weighs 167 pounds. Her waist measurement is 37 inches. Her lab values include; a fasting blood sugar level of 115mg/dl, her total blood cholesterol was 227mg/dl and her blood pressure was 137/87mmHg. She consumes on the average 2,450 Calories, 26 grams of dietary fiber, and 26 grams of saturated fat. TRUE or FALSE, Lyla's Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) for protein would be met if she consumed 61 grams of dietary protein each day.
Lyla is a 23 year old single mom. She developed gestational diabetes during her pregnancy. Her child is now two years old. Lyla is 5 foot 7 inches tall and she weighs 167 pounds. Her waist measurement is 37 inches. Her lab values include; a fasting blood sugar level of 115mg/dl, her total blood cholesterol was 227mg/dl and her blood pressure was 137/87mmHg. She consumes on the average 2,450 Calories, 26 grams of dietary fiber, and 26 grams of saturated fat. TRUE or FALSE, If Lyla consumed the same Calorie level and her DRI for protein, then she would consume 10% of her Calories from protein.
Which of the following is (are) positive about arbitration
Which of the following is (are) positive about arbitration?
Arbitrators are assigned so parties do not have to pick them. Arbitration is generally less expensive than litigation. Arbitrators are bound by the same rules as judges in applying precedent. Arbitrators are assigned so parties do not have to pick them, and arbitration is generally less expensive than litigation. Arbitrators are assigned so parties do not have to pick them, arbitration is generally less expensive than litigation, and arbitrators are bound by the same rules as judges in applying precedent. 3.4 points
The United States Constitution and __________ establish the fundamental principles and rules by which the United States and the individual states are governed.
the administrative rules
the procedural rules
the constitution of each state
the bylaws of each state
both the procedural rules and the bylaws of each state
Billy knows that he can bring his case against Bob in a state court in Tennessee. He is unsure, however, of which county in which to proceed. Which of the following addresses the proper county?
In personam jurisdiction
Patricia, the president of a company that makes batteries, has a new interest in the environment. She recently went to a seminar on environmental dangers and has decided to take steps to clean things up. She started at home and was also committed to change things at work. Patricia had to face the fact that her company has been cheating and is not in compliance with applicable environmental regulations due to dumping in a nearby river. Her company has never been cited, however, because it employs a very large number of people in the community, including the mayor's wife and the chief-of-police's brother. On her mission to clean things up, Patricia has decided to go even further than the law requires and install the very latest environmental protections. When she announced her plan, the chair of the company's board of directors, Cindy, had a meeting with Patricia. Cindy told Patricia to analyze the situation carefully because the cost of the additional equipment would mean no dividend to shareholders and no raise for employees. Furthermore, Cindy told Patricia that installing all the new equipment would result in higher prices for the company's batteries and could bankrupt the company because of foreign competition. Cindy hinted that Patricia could be fired if she persisted. Cindy suggested that Patricia just be concerned with a minimal standard of ethics. Which of the following is the minimal standard that a business must meet in a consideration of business ethics?
Decisions must meet the criteria of a follower of the WPH framework for business ethics. Decisions must meet the requirements of the most important stakeholders. Decisions must receive a majority vote of acceptance by employees. Decisions must be legal. Decisions must be legal, and decisions must receive a majority vote of acceptance by employees. 2.4 points
Positive abstractions that capture our sense of what is good or desirable are __________.
Which of the following involves disputes between private individuals or groups?
Public law and private law, but not governmental law
Public law, private law, and governmental law
Which of the following is true regarding federal jurisdiction?
There is no exclusive federal jurisdiction in civil matters. If a case falls within federal jurisdiction, it may not also fall within state jurisdiction. Some cases fall within both federal jurisdiction and state jurisdiction, but there is no exclusive federal court jurisdiction. Some cases fall within both federal jurisdiction and state jurisdiction, but that only occurs in criminal matters. Some cases fall within both federal jurisdiction and state jurisdiction, but the federal court system has exclusive jurisdiction over some cases. 2.4 points
When courts rely on precedent, they are obeying __________.
in rem process
What type of law is created by administrative agencies involving applications, licenses, permits, available information, hearings, appeals, and decision making?
The "public disclosure" test is also known as the __________ test.
What do the initials ALJ represent in the administrative law arena?
Administrative Legal Journal
Agency Legal Jargon
Administrative Law Judge
Agency Legal Judge
Agency Law Jurisprudence
What usually happens to decisions of administrative law judges that are appealed to the federal court system?
The decisions are usually upheld. The decisions are usually denied. The decisions are upheld approximately 50% of the time. The decisions are generally upheld as a matter of law unless a jury is requested. None of these since there is no right of appeal to the federal court system. 2.4 points
Which of the following is a type of alternative dispute resolution?
If a computer store dumps waste behind its building in violation of local, state, or federal environmental regulations, the resulting dispute focuses on __________ law.
Which of the following are types of rule that an agency may enact?
Procedural and interpretive
Interpretive and legislative
Legislative and judicial
Procedural, interpretive, and legislative
The term __________ involves the use of past decisions to guide future decisions.
What types of powers do administrative agencies have?
Legislative and judicial
Judicial and executive
Executive and legislative
Legislative, judicial, and executive
Which of the following involves disputes between private individuals or groups and their government?
Public law and private law, but not governmental law
Public law, private law, and governmental law
Which of the following was the result in Alexis Perez v. John Ashcroft, the case in the textbook in which the plaintiff claimed that—without formal rulemaking as required by law—the Immigration and Naturalization Service wrongfully imposed a rule that required visa applicants who work in a professional capacity in a religious vocation to have formal religious training?
The court ruled that no formal rulemaking was required because the agency was merely interpreting previously-approved regulations. The court ruled that no formal rulemaking was required because the Immigration and Naturalization Service was exempt from the Administrative Procedures Act. The court upheld the rule on the basis that as a potential immigrant, the plaintiff lacked standing to sue. The court struck the rule on the basis that the Immigration and Naturalization Service lacked the authority to pass any rules whatsoever when First Amendment freedom of religion rights were at issue. The court struck the rule on the basis that all substantive rules adopted by an agency creating law must be implemented through formal rulemaking procedures. 2.4 points
Which of the following do appellate courts primarily handle?
Questions of law
Questions of fact
Questions of law and fact
Cases when they initially enter the legal system
Questions of law and fact, and also cases when they initially enter the legal system
results in a set of correct decisions made by a company. refers to a standard of business conduct. can improve business decisions. refers to a standard of business conduct and can improve business decisions. results in a set of correct decisions made by a company and can improve business decisions. 2.4 points
Which of the following is the minimal standard that a business must meet in a consideration of business ethics?
Decisions must be legal. Decisions must meet the criteria of a follower of the WPH framework for business ethics. Decisions must meet the requirements of the most important stakeholders. Decisions must receive a majority vote of acceptance by employees. Decisions must be legal, and decisions must receive a majority vote of acceptance by employees. 2.4 points
Which of the following is FALSE regarding executive agencies at the federal level?
The president with the advice and consent of the U.S. House of Representatives appoints the administrative head of an executive agency. The president may discharge executive-agency heads at any time, for any reason. Executive agencies are usually under one of the cabinet-level departments. Executive agencies are generally located within the executive branch. Executive agencies tend to have responsibility for making rules covering a broad spectrum of industries and activities. 2.4 points
Congress created federal administrative agencies through passage of what type of legislation?
Question 25 Which of the following is accurate regarding the speed and cost of alternative dispute resolution?
It is usually faster and cheaper. It is usually faster but more expensive. It is usually slower and more expensive. It is usually slower but cheaper. No studies have known, so the answer is unknown.
Would you ever run for political office? If not, why not? If yes, which office would you seek, and why?
Would you ever run for political office? If not, why not? If yes, which office would you seek, and why? Your response should be at least 75 words in length.
Which of the following is not a risk factor for developing
Which of the following is not a risk factor for developing substance abuse problems?
having excessively permissive parents
having easy access to drugs
having friends who use and tolerate the use of drugs
being involved in a sexual relationship
Studies of the long-term consequences of adolescent parenthood indicate that the problems associated with it:
are actually relatively minor, and research studies have difficulty replicating the findings.
may actually be greater for the children than for their mothers.
may actually be greater for the mothers than for their children.
are likely limited to psychological and emotional domains.
Who is the most likely, after becoming pregnant, to have an abortion?
Jamie, a White female living in the suburbs
Kimberly, a White female who dropped out of high school
Dotty, a Black female who dropped out of high school
Tara, a Black female living in poverty
According to social control theory, delinquency is caused by:
unconventionality in the adolescent's personality.
an inherited predisposition toward deviance.
biologically based differences in arousal and sensation-seeking.
a lack of bonds to the family, the school, or the workplace.
Which of the following is not typically considered to be autoerotic behavior during adolescence?
sexual activity experienced alone
Which of the following statements about parent-adolescent communication about sex is not true?
Adolescents are more receptive to having one "big talk" about sex than having multiple conversations over a period of time.
Sexually active adolescents underestimate their parents' disapproval of sexual activity.
Parents assume that if they disapprove of sexual activity, their adolescent is not likely to be sexually active.
There seems to be a gap between what parents say they have discussed with their adolescent child and what adolescents say they have discussed with their parents.
According to research cited in the textbook, all of the following are reasons that some sex education programs fail, except:
when they are introduced into the curriculum too late (after adolescents are already sexually active).
when teachers are uncomfortable talking about the subject with students.
when they focus primarily on changing students' knowledge rather than their behavior.
when they emphasize abstinence-only sex education.
One of the most consistent predictors of chronic delinquency (or being a life-course persistent offender) appears to be rooted in:
poor relations with peers during childhood.
being exposed to disorganized families with hostile, inept, or neglectful parenting.
academic failure in junior high school.
pessimistic attitudes about employment prospects.
Evaluations of adolescent treatment programs suggest:
placing adolescents who experiment with drugs into treatment programs has been effective in preventing escalation to drug abuse.
drug treatment programs for adolescent substance abuse are more effective when the adolescent's family is involved in therapy with the adolescent.
the most effective programs are those that deal with substance abusing adolescents in a private setting, away from their families and friends.
most substance abuse treatment programs for adolescents have strict admission guidelines so they only accept adolescents who are seriously abusing drugs.
What is the most common method of birth control among sexually active adolescents?
birth control pills
the rhythm method
According to national surveys, sexual activity among adolescents is occurring ______ it has in past decades.
at the same time as
earlier for boys but later for girls than
Which of the following is least likely to explain why growing up in a single-parent home affects girls' sexual behavior more than boys' sexual behavior?
Social influences on sexual behavior are weaker for girls than for boys, thereby leading to fewer restraints on girls' sexual activities.
Single mothers may be dating, thereby inadvertently acting as role models of sexual activity for their adolescent daughters.
Girls are more likely than boys to look outside the family for warmth and support.
There may be a genetic link inherited from the girls' fathers that increases daughters' sexual behavior.
Members of which of the following racial groups are most likely to become sexually experienced at earlier ages?
Asian American adolescents
Many experts endorse a model of depression that suggests individuals who are predisposed toward internalizing problems will develop depression when they are exposed to chronic or acute stressors. This is called:
the diathesis-stress model.
Bobbie Jo's employer has been sexually harassing her. Bobby Jo has decided to find a new job, which she will start next week, and she also has filed sexual harassment charges against her current employer. Bobbie Jo is using ______ strategies to deal with her stress.
Margaret has been able to withstand many stressors in her life without showing negative effects. Margaret's behavior would be considered an example of:
an internalizing behavior.
an externalizing behavior.
Peter's parents caught him drinking alcohol with a couple of his friends and now they're worried. They think his alcohol use might turn into a long-term problem. Which of the following best illustrates the nature of adolescent drug use?
Many adolescents experiment with alcohol in high school without growing into adult alcoholics.
Adolescent alcohol use is the first sign of long-term problems with drugs.
Adolescent alcohol use is a clear indication of permissive parenting techniques.
None of the above is true.
Greg, a 17-year-old, has gotten his girlfriend pregnant. If he is typical of other males who impregnate adolescent women, we would expect him to experience all of the following, except:
school or work problems.
an increased sense of responsibility and optimism about the future.
problems with alcohol and other drugs.
Since 1991, a survey assessing eighth-graders', tenth-graders', and high school seniors' use and abuse of a variety of drugs has been distributed to a nationwide sample every year. The name of this survey is:
Examining the Future.
Monitoring the Future.
Focus on the Future.
According to the textbook, which adults are most likely to describe their fathers as distant and rejecting?
bisexual and homosexual adolescents
Recent research on promoting safe-sex behaviors among adolescents has suggested all of the following, except:
it is more effective to focus on adolescents' motives and social relationships, rather than their knowledge about safe sex.
adolescents are often unaware that their partners may be having sex with others as well.
being aware of the risk of STDs is sufficient to ensure safe sex practices among adolescents.
it may be important to use different strategies for sexually active and inexperienced adolescents.
Generalizing from the textbook, Marge is most likely to have her first sexual encounter with a:
What is the best way to conceptualize adolescent sexual development?
as gradual stages of increasing intimacy
with the first event being intercourse
as an isolated behavior
there are no systematic patterns to adolescent sexual development
Which aspect of parent-adolescent communication about sex is likely to have a meaningful effect on the adolescent's behavior?
parent-child communication specifically focused on the topic of contraception lowers the rate of risky sex
parent-child discussion about whether the adolescent should have sex at all
parent-child communication that involves an authoritarian approach with specific, rigid rules with respect to sexual activity
parent-child communication that directly cautions their teenager against sex but avoids implying that sex is a moral or religious issue
Some people who are delinquent as adolescents grow up to be law-abiding adults. What type of pattern is this?
adolescent limited offender
Tim and Carol are upset because they recently discovered that their 13-year-old daughter has already engaged in sexual intercourse. What other types of problems is their daughter likely to have?
drug and alcohol problems
low interest in academics
tolerance of deviant behavior
All of the above.
_______________ is an example of an internalizing disorder; _______________ is an example of an externalizing disorder.
Depression; psychosomatic disturbance
Drug and alcohol abuse; delinquency
Truancy; psychosomatic disturbance
Alcohol and marijuana are considered ______ drugs because they are almost always used before harder drugs.
Studies of adolescent drug use suggest that:
a large majority of adolescents have serious drug dependence problems.
a large majority of adolescents use hard drugs.
drug and alcohol use are the underlying cause of many adolescents' problems.
the drug of choice among adolescents is alcohol.
The neurotransmitter associated with the experience of pleasure that is implicated in substance abuse problems is known as:
Which of the following would be considered a status offense?
being truant from school
All of the above.
"Decreased enjoyment of pleasurable activities" and "low self-esteem" would be examples of what type of depressive symptoms?
Which type of intervention has been effective for adolescent-limited offenders?
teaching them how to resist peer pressure and settle conflict without resorting to aggression
training parents to monitor their children effectively
making sure adolescents know that misbehavior has serious consequences
a combination of all of the above
Which of the following is a likely reason that Black youngsters have a lower rate of drinking than their White counterparts?
They don't have money to purchase alcohol.
They are biologically unable to process alcohol.
Their parents are less likely to drink and tolerate drinking.
Their celebrity role models do not drink.
Which of the following statements about boys' first sexual experience is false?
A boy's first sexual experience is usually through masturbation.
Boys typically view sex as recreation.
A boy's first sexual partner is likely to be someone he's in love with.
Boys are more likely than girls to keep sex and intimacy separate.
Kate is a Black teen mom and has decided to move back to her parents' home. Which of the following statements is not true?
Kate is more likely to stay in school.
Living with parents might actually undermine the development of Kate's parenting skills and increase her likelihood of getting pregnant again.
It would be best if Kate lived with her parents for an extended period.
Problems in the relationship between Kate and her mother can adversely affect Kate's mental health.
One explanation for girls' greater susceptibility to internalizing problems, such as depression, emphasizes their greater orientation toward and sensitivity to interpersonal relationships. Specifically, gender differences in the level of the hormone ________ may play a role in making females both more invested in close relationships, and more vulnerable to adverse consequences of interpersonal problems.
Sexual activity in the United States is _____ in other industrialized countries, and the rate of pregnancy is _____.
higher than; higher
lower than; the same
comparable; the same
For adolescent girls, which of the following is the most important factor in determining the onset of sexual intercourse?
increased levels of androgens
availability of birth control
the attitudes of friends toward sexual activity
receiving sex education in school
At age 17, Cherise is a frequent drug user. According to one team of researchers who followed a sample of individuals from preschool into young adulthood, it is possible that:
she had psychological disturbance before the age of 7.
her problem behavior began a few months ago.
her problem behavior began by age 15.
it is her peer group, not her early family relations, that has directed her into using drugs.
Suzanne has just found out that her 13-year-old daughter had been sexually abused by her piano teacher. According to research presented in the textbook, what type of problems is Suzanne's daughter most likely to face?
Vince engaged in delinquency as a pre-adolescent and has continued to be in trouble with the law ever since. Now, as a young adult, Vince would most likely be characterized as a _____ offender.
According to research by Small and Luster, which adolescent is most likely to engage in early sexual activity?
Chelsea, who lives in a low SES/disadvantaged neighborhood
Ryan, who has many antisocial peers
Frank, someone who has completely disengaged from school
The adolescent most likely to engage in early sexual activity is one that has a combination of the above risk factors.
Todd would rather date men than women. This refers to Todd's:
What is a reason offered by the textbook to explain why many youth do not receive substance abuse treatment?
These programs are rarely offered during times that do not interfere with a typical public school schedule.
There are many stigmas attached to seeking drug or alcohol treatment.
Many families, especially minority families, cannot afford (or don't have adequate health insurance) to send their adolescent to treatment.
It is difficult to actually meet the clinical cut-off for "substance abuse"; therefore, it is hard to be accepted into one of these programs.
The term "______ syndrome" refers to covariation among various types of externalizing disorders that results from an underlying trait of unconventionality found in the adolescent's personality and social environment.
Evaluations of individual-focused approaches to drug prevention programs have found that:
these programs are largely ineffective.
these programs are more effective for changing adolescents' sexual behaviors than their drug use.
scare tactics are more effective in changing behavior than rational information.
random drug testing in schools has been the only effective strategy for reducing adolescents' use of drugs.
Kristin has just been the victim of a mugging. Her parents are concerned about how she will react to the crime. What problem(s) is(are) Kristin likely to report?
All of the above.
Approximately what percentage of American adolescents have had sexual intercourse before the end of their sophomore year of high school?
An analysis of "virginity pledges" that encourage adolescents to promise to abstain from premarital sex has found that:
pledging works equally well for adolescents of all ages.
pledging has a big effect in schools in which few students take the pledge.
pledging works well in schools in which nearly everyone takes the pledge.
about 82% of adolescents who take a virginity pledge will deny having done so five years later.
ACC 210 Which of the following best describes a data warehouse as described in the chapter?
1. Which of the following best describes a data warehouse as described in the chapter?
a) A repository of historical information from one accounting application
b) A repository of historical information from a set of accounting applications
c) A repository of information from many business applications—some not accounting
d) A repository of information from many businesses in the same industry
2. All of the following are possible uses of AIS or accounting personnel that were discussed in the chapter EXCEPT:
a) Countering terrorism
b) Foiling future accounting scandals
c) Providing assurance services
d) Performing monetary exchanges
3. Justifying expenditures for new technologies is especially difficult because:
a) You do not know how many jobs will be affected
b) Expenses are often recurring and are difficult to estimate
c) Many benefits are intangible and are not easily known or measured
d) Justifying a new technology is no different from any other capital budgeting problem
4. What has been the effect on accountants in those organizations which have computerized their data processing functions?
a) The need for accountants has disappeared
b) The accountants have become "pure" bookkeepers
c) The accountants have become involved in more decision making activities
d) The accountants' decision making activities have drastically declined
5. The principal cause for more timely performance reports in the typical modern organization is due to:
a) Better educated management
b) Adoption of progressive management philosophies which stress participative management (e.g., MBO)
c) Information processing systems
d) Need for less information
6. A good performance measurement system should evaluate:
a) Profitability only
b) Customer satisfaction only
c) All aspects of a unit’s performance subject to control
d) All aspects of a unit’s performance whether controllable or not
7. The term data encryption refers to:
a) Storing data in a safe place called EDGAR
b) Transforming data into secret codes
c) Scrambling data in random ways that cannot be unscrambled
d) Documenting data security techniques
8. All of the following are examples of EDI “documents” EXCEPT:
a) Purchase orders
b) Sales invoices
c) Customs documents
d) Payroll checks
9. The term key in the context of data encryption refers to:
a) A physical key similar to a house key
b) A logical key similar to the primary key of a data file
c) A mathematical function used for encryption purposes
d) A computer function key that can be found on keyboards
10. A proxy server is:
a) A type of computer network often used by companies with many employees
b) An alternate for a company mainframe computer
c) A computer dedicated to company networks
d) A computer dedicated to Internet access and transfers
11. Because Internet software is so convenient to use, many companies also create their own __________________ for internal communications purposes.
d) Domain address
12. Those companies which prefer VANs to the Internet for implementing EDI do so for what main reason?
a) Cost - VANs are cheaper than the Internet
b) Speed - VANs are faster than the Internet
c) Security - VANs are thought to be more secure
d) Convenience - VANs are everywhere
13. The hardware of a computer system includes the computer itself and other devices that help the computer perform its tasks. These “other devices” are commonly also called:
a) Helper equipment
b) IT devices
c) Peripheral equipment
d) Secondary equipment
e) Accessory equipment
14. Time cards, packing slips, reservation screens, and bank deposits screens best describes which of the following?
a) Data transcription
b) Point-of-sale devices
c) Source documents
d) Turnaround documents
e) Data transaction documents
15. Which of the following is the most important reason to use POS systems, OCR systems, or MICR systems?
a) To use the latest information technology
b) To avoid data transcription
c) To create an extra layer of IT infrastructure
d) To decrease dependency on foreign oil
16. A POS device is usually attached to a:
b) Bank check
c) Cash register
e) Computer mouse
17. A portable computing device that enables users to maintain personal data like addresses, appointment calendars, and check registers and that can also include wireless technology and digital cameras:
c) Personal Computer
18. A bar code reader is most likely to be used by which type of system?
a) POS system
b) MICR system
c) Printer/scanner system
d) Fax machine system
19. Three objectives of a company's internal control system should be safeguarding assets, checking the accuracy and reliability of accounting data, and promoting operational efficiency. A fourth objective of a company's internal control system should be:
a) Preventing embezzlement of assets
b) Encouraging adherence to prescribed managerial policies
c) Avoiding the payment of overtime to company employees
d) Revising standards for production costs on a weekly basis
20. Regarding the cost-benefit concept, which of the following statements is true?
a) Every control procedure that offers benefits to a company should be implemented into the company's system
b) An optimal internal control package is developed for a company's system by implementing a standardized package of control procedures
c) A control procedure is considered cost effective if it can be determined that the cost of operating the procedure will be cheaper in the current period compared to the previous period
d) A control procedure is considered cost effective when its anticipated benefits exceed its anticipated costs
21. If the same employee is responsible for authorizing a business transaction and recording the transaction in the accounting records, this indicates a weakness in which element of a company's internal control system?
a) A good audit trail
b) Separation of duties
c) Internal review of controls
d) Competent employees
22. Logical access to the computer system would be best controlled by:
a) Intrusion alarm systems
b) Complex operating systems
c) Restrictions on physical access to online terminals
d) Password codes
23. From the standpoint of computer fraud, which type of controls would probably be of highest importance?
a) Input controls
b) Access controls
c) Output controls
d) Processing controls
24. An apparent error in input data describing an inventory item received was referred back to the originating department for correction. A week later the department complained that the inventory in question was incorrect. Data processing could not easily determine whether or not the item had been processed by the computer. The best control procedure would be:
a) Input edit checks
b) Missing data validity check
c) Transmittal control
d) An error log
25. Software that enables businesses and government agencies to transmit and manipulate financial data on an organization-wide basis best describes:
a) Communication software
b) CAD software
c) Enterprise resource planning (ERP) software
d) Programming software
26. Software used for preparing payrolls, maintaining accounts receivable files, controlling inventory best describes:
a) Communication software
b) Personal productivity software
c) Project management software
d) Accounting software
27. The translation process of converting source code into machine language (object code) is performed by which of the following?
a) Utility program
b) System software
c) ERP (Enterprise Resource Management) software
28. Menus, icons, and other graphical elements are an example of which of the following?
a) Utility programs
b) Personal productivity software
c) Virtual Storage
d) Graphical user interface (GUI)
29. Programs that help users perform such tasks as copying files, converting files from one format to another, compressing files, performing system diagnostics, and building disk directories best describes which of the following?
a) Antivirus software
b) Utility programs
c) Application software
d) Operating system software
30. An intensive investigation of a company's present information system in order to discover systems weaknesses is termed a:
a) Systems study
b) Systems follow up
c) Systems design
d) Systems survey
31. Which of these is NOT a phase in the life cycle of an information system?
32. The four phases of the systems development life cycle end with this phase:
c) Implementation, follow-up, and maintenance
33. Which of the following is least likely to be a member of a study team?
a) CEO of a company
b) Internal auditor or accountant
c) IT specialist
d) Middle-level manager who uses the system
34. Which of these is NOT a general systems goal?
a) Relevant output
b) Cost awareness
c) Flexible structure
d) Higher salaries
35. Which of these comes closest in meaning to the term “systems approach?”
a) Narrow point of view
b) Broad point of view
c) Focus on achieving those goals important to computerized systems
d) Focus first and foremost on computerization
36. Which of these should come first when performing a systems study?
a) Systems analysis
b) Systems design
c) Preliminary investigation
d) Systems development
37. This type of survey instrument best allows employees to answer in their own words:
a) Open-ended questionnaire
b) Closed-ended questionnaire
c) Multiple-choice questionnaire
d) Fill-in-the-blank questionnaire
38. Which of these is NOT a logical procedure that is followed in the systems analysis phase of a systems study?
a) Define the problem(s) in the current system
b) Identify the company's goals
c) Perform a systems survey to acquire information about the current system
d) Generate possible solutions to solve the company's problem(s)
39. Which of the following is NOT a general objective in the design of an information system?
a) A system should provide information which is timely and relevant for decision making by management and operating personnel
b) The output of a system should be highly accurate
c) A system should have sufficient capacity to accommodate levels of normal activity; any additional capacity proves too costly in the long run
d) A system should be as simple as permitted so that its structure and operation can be easily understood and its procedures easily accomplished
e) A system should be flexible to accommodate changes of a reasonable magnitude when required
40. In conducting a feasibility study, operational feasibility refers to whether:
a) A proposed system is attainable given the existing technology
b) A manager can coordinate and control the activities of the systems department
c) An adequate computer site exists for the proposed system
d) The proposed system will produce economic benefits which exceed the costs
e) The system will be used effectively within the operating environment of an organization
41. A simple diagram that shows estimated completion times versus actual completion times for the various activities in a systems implementation project is a(n):
a) E-R diagram
b) PERT chart
c) Gantt chart
d) Data flow diagram
42. Documentation includes:
a) All flowcharts, narratives, and other written communications associated with the information system
b) All written communications associated with an accounting information system except flowcharts and data flow diagrams
c) All flowcharts, narratives, and other written communications associated with an accounting information system, except for program flowcharts, decision tables, and pseudocode
d) Flowcharts and data flow diagrams only
43. When an individual prepares a document flowchart, the names of the various organizational departments involved in the accounting information system should be listed:
a) Along the right hand margin of the flowchart
b) Along the left hand margin of the flowchart
c) In the title of the flowchart
d) In the column headings of the flowchart
44. Most system flowcharting symbols:
a) Have not been standardized
b) Have been standardized by the Society of System Analysts
c) Have been standardized by the National Bureau of Standards
d) Are unique to the organization that uses them
45. Data flow diagrams:
a) Accomplish the same purpose as system flowcharts
b) Are different from system flowcharts since they focus on a logical view of the information system
c) Are useless for planning a new system
d) Are never used in analyzing an existing system
46. All of these are levels of a data flow diagram EXCEPT:
a) Physical data flow diagram
b) Process diagram
c) Context diagram
d) Logical data flow diagram
47. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of decision tables?
a) They document the logic of the computer program
b) They show the order in which data conditions are tested and/or processing actions are taken
c) They increase computer programmer productivity
d) They summarize the data processing tasks to be performed for a large number of data conditions in a compact format
48. The basic unit of information on a computer file of accounting data is a(n):
a) Inventory part number
b) Data field
c) Computer record
49. The data item which uniquely identifies a computer record in an AIS database table is called the:
a) Pointer address
b) Primary record key
c) Employee number
d) Header label
e) Sort field
50. This item creates relationships by linking the data in one file (e.g., customer) to an item in a second file (e.g., a sales order):
a) Foreign key
b) Data dictionary
c) Relationships link bit
d) Index file
51. The reason why database designers normalize data is:
a) To eliminate data errors
b) To scale data properly
c) To create backup copies of data
d) To create efficient database tables
52. You are defining a database table. Which of the following best explains why you would assign a Social Security number field as a text field?
a) The field will not be manipulated mathematically
b) This is the default data type for most DBMS table fields
c) The field is too long to define as a numerical field
d) You plan to use this field as a primary key, which must therefore be a text field
53. You are defining a database table. Which of these data types would be best for the product code of an inventory table?
54. According to the text, which of these statements is most accurate?
a) Most computer abuse is performed as retaliation against employers
b) Very little computer crime is committed for personal gain
c) Some computer abuse is performed simply to meet a challenge
d) We catch most computer abusers with good accounting controls
55. The best explanation for the absence of complete information on computer crime would be:
a) Abuse is handled as an internal matter
b) Hesitant disclosure of abuse due to embarrassment
c) Documentation of abuses hasn’t caught up with actual abuses
d) Most computer crime is not caught
56. One of the major crimes identified by the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act of 1986 is intent to illegally obtain information or tangible property through the use of computers. Which of the following methods might accomplish this type of crime if the perpetrator can change data before, during, or after they are entered into a computer system?:
a) Salami technique
b) Data diddling
c) Shoulder surfing
d) Trojan horse program
57. In thwarting computer abuse, which of the following is true?:
a) It is not important to enlist the support of top management
b) Many IT managers do not think computer abuse is very important
c) Computer crime mostly means controlling computer hardware
d) Most computer crime happens because of a failure of controls, not an absence of controls
58. Probably the most important federal legislation governing activities involving computers is:
a) CAN-SPAM Act of 2003
b) Federal Privacy Act of 1974
c) Computer Fraud and Abuse Act of 1986
d) Cyber Security Act of 1987
59. Which of the following is probably the primary reason accountants should be concerned about computer crime and abuse?
a) They might lose their job if they don’t detect computer crime or abuse in their organization
b) They might lose their professional credibility and license if computer crime or abuse continues for a long time in their organization and they do not detect it
c) They are responsible for designing, implementing, and monitoring the control procedures for AISs
d) all of the above are equally important
Which of the following is NOT a function of the International Monetary Fund
Which of the following is NOT a function of the International Monetary Fund?
a. Serve as lender of last resort for national governments
b. Administer an international foreign exchange system
c. Establish the SDR system nations utilize to settle international payment obligations
d. Establish and administer each nation's fiscal and monetary policies
A summary of a country's economic transactions with foreign residents and governments is called the
a. current account balance.
b. capital account balance.
c. balance of trade.
d. balance of payments.
Special Drawing Rights are
a. a reserve asset created by the International Monetary Fund that can be used to settle international payments.
b. loans granted by the International Monetary Fund to countries that experience balance of payments problems.
c. the term given for official reserves taken as a whole.
d. financial assets held by the U.S. Treasury Department.
Which of the following would contribute to a positive trade balance for a country?
a. Having tourists visit the country
b. Importing textiles
c. Having foreign residents buy the government bonds of the country
d. Importing financial services
With a dirty float system,
a. market forces and the country's stock of gold determine its exchange rate.
b. central banks may intervene to affect the value of a country's currency.
c. market forces do not play a role in determining the value of a currency.
d. the International Monetary Fund and the Groups of Five and Seven determine fixed exchange rates.
All of the following are surplus items on a country's balance of payments EXCEPT
a. gold sales to foreigners.
c. foreign tourists' expenditures in the host country.
d. purchase of foreign assets.
Country X-2002 Transactions (billions of dollars)
The merchandise trade balance for Country X is ________ billion dollars. (See the above table.)
The gold standard is
a. a type of floating exchange rate system.
b. a type of managed flexible exchange rate system.
c. a type of fixed exchange rate system.
d. a purely floating exchange rate system.
Exchanging dollars for euros to pay a computer manufacturer in Belgium would occur
at the European Central Bank.
at the Federal Reserve.
in the letter of credit market.
in the foreign exchange market.
Since all currencies had values fixed in units of gold under the gold standard
a. exchange rates were essentially floating.
b. exchange rates were set to a crawling peg.
c. exchange rates were essentially fixed.
d. none of these
In the above figure, suppose the value of the French franc is P1 and U.S. demand for French wine declines. The effect on the franc can be shown by
a. an increase in the value of the franc to P2.
b. the excess demand of franc equal to Q3 - Q1.
c. the decrease in the value of the franc to P0.
d. a shift in the demand for francs from D1 to D0, but no change in the value of the franc.
Under a flexible exchange rate system, a decrease in the value of a domestic currency in terms of foreign currencies is referred to as
a. an appreciation.
b. a depreciation.
c. a devaluation.
d. a revaluation.
Under a flexible exchange rate system, an increase in the value of the U.S. dollar in terms of other currencies is referred to as
a. a depreciation of the U.S. dollar.
b. an appreciation of the U.S. dollar.
c. a monetizing of the U.S. dollar.
d. a devaluation of the U.S. dollar.
An important problem with the gold standard was that
a. one country could easily manipulate the system to its advantage and the disadvantage of other countries.
b. a country did not have control of its domestic monetary policy.
c. exchange rates tended to fluctuate a great deal, making it difficult for businesses to make long-run plans.
d. it was too complicated and restricted business activity.
The supply of U.S. dollars on foreign exchange markets is
a. derived from the supply of U.S. goods.
b. derived from the demand by United States for imported goods and services.
c. determined directly by open market operations at the Federal Reserve Bank.
d. derived from the demand for U.S. products by foreigners.
If the exchange rate is such that $1 equals 5 euros, then the price of a euro is
Which of the following is a determinant of exchange rates?
a. A change in consumer preferences
b. A change in productivity
c. A change in real interest rates
d. all of these
If the dollar used to buy 100 yen and now buys 360 yen, there has been
a. appreciation of the dollar.
b. depreciation of the dollar.
c. appreciation of the yen.
d. an increase in special drawing rights.
A problem with the operation of the gold standard in the world economy was that
a. it involved too much government intervention in the economy.
b. the world economy was subject to too much inflation.
c. a country didn't have control of its domestic monetary policy.
d. it caused the Great Depression.
Other things being constant, if the U.S. real rate of interest exceeds that of its trading partners, we expect
a. political instability in the United States.
b. a worsening of the U.S. balance of payments.
c. an appreciation of U.S. currency.
d. that a "dirty float" will emerge.