NSG6435 Week 5 Assignment 4 Midterm Exam / NSG 6435 Week 5 Midterm Exam -Family Health - Pediatrics- South University
NSG6435 Week 5 Assignment 4 Midterm Exam / NSG 6435 Week 5 Midterm Exam -Family Health - Pediatrics- South University
The incidence of congenital heart defects is estimated to be ________ of all live births.
Breastmilk can be safely stored in a freezer below 0 degrees Fahrenheit for how long?
Which foreign body needs immediate removal from a five-year-old boy’s nose?
The most useful diagnostic test in delayed puberty is _____________________.
complete thyroid panel
X-Ray of the left wrist and hand
X-Ray of the right wrist and hand
X-Ray of the spinal column
An average vision of a two-year-old child is approximately:
A five-year-old female presents for a follow-up emergency room visit with a diagnosis of bronchitis. You would expect which treatment to have been prescribed?
Increase rest and fluid
An adolescent with a chronic asthma cough notes that symptoms are usually worse _____________.
only with exertion
only during the daytime
only at night
at night and with exertion
An average adolescent female usually experiences her biggest growth spurt at approximately what age?
Ten and half years
Eleven and half years
Twelve and half years
Thirteen and half years
If an adolescent has a bone age of 10 but is actually 13 years of age, this patient has ______.
an increased risk of fracture in the next three years
an increased risk of osteoporosis as an adult
a higher potential for bone growth
a lower potential for bone growth
Gardasil results in greater antibody responses for females who are administered the three-dose series between what ages?
Six to twenty-six years of age
Prior to eleven years of age
Nine to fifteen years of age
Nine to twenty-six years of age
An eight-year old has chronic intermittent nasal congestion. All but which of the following would support allergic rhinitis?
Red swollen turbinates
Darkened areas below eyes
Increased basophils on complete blood count (CB
Itchy, watery eyes
A fifteen-month old failed treatment with amoxicillin for an otitis media. At his two-week recheck, his tympanic membrane remained red with distorted landmarks and he persisted with nasal discharge that is thick and yellowish. The best action for the nursing practitioner should be to prescribe:
A ten-day-course of augmentin
A three-week-course of a cephalexin
A higher dose amoxicillin
Ceftriaxone and an antihistamine
An infant should be able to say his or her first word by:
four to five months
eight to nine months
twelve to fifteen months
twenty four to twenty six months
The latter part of adolescence includes the ability to develop ________ and _______ means to be a part of society.
strong attachments; sexuality
critical thinking; basic life skills
moral; intellectual means
A fourteen-year-old adolescent presents with fatigue, endocarditis, pulmonary hypertension, arrhythmias, and congestive heart failure. You suspect he may have ____________.
pulmonary valve stenosis
aortic valve stenosis
a ventricular septal defect (VSD)
A four-year-old male patient presents with his mother with a school referral regarding red eyes. Which questions would not assist in establishing a list of differential diagnoses?
Unilateral vs. bilateral presentation
Type of drainage
History of a bacterial infection one month ago
______________ adolescents should be screened for sexually transmitted diseases.
An infant should no longer have a head lag when pulled from the supine to sitting position at what age?
____________ should be given as a supplement in the management of delayed puberty.
Vitamins B1 and B12
Vitamins D and E
Vitamin A and Calcium
Calcium and Vitamin D
Parents or guardians of adolescents should ___________________.
not be included in the adolescent's health care
receive health guidance information at least twice during adolescence
encourage reasonable use of alcohol and tobacco by the adolescent
encourage early sexual activity by providing condoms to the adolescent
How does cultural sensitivity impact the care of infants in the primary care setting?
Health-care providers may possess cultural biases that can impact care.
Cultural sensitivities do not exist in health care.
Cultural sensitivity only impacts the parents of infants.
Cultural sensitivity increases access to timely health-care services for infants.
The most typical chest radiographic finding consistent with the diagnosis of asthma is ______________.
normal chest film
diffuse airway edema
right upper-lobe infiltrate
A 10 yo has a single painful ulcerated lesion on an erythematous base on the inner buccal mucosa. The most likely diagnosis and treatment would be:
herpes simplex stomatitis--oral acyclovir
apthous ulcer--triamcinalone in orabase
Hand, foot, mouth syndrome--antibiotic mouthwash
A 9 month old is noted to have a bifid uvula. This would increase his risk of developing which disorder?
All of the following may predispose a patient to thrush except:
poor oral hygiene
Patients with sinusitis should be instructed not to participate in what activity?
cross country running
What complication of sinusitis are adolescent males more prone to?
potts puffy tumor
Acceptable management options for allergic rhinitis include all of the following except:
A 7 yo has experienced recurrent nose bleeds in the past 2 months. What finding on the physical exam would suggest an underlying medical cause for the epistaxis?
grade II murmur
A 2 yo male with a history of chronic serous OM is noted to have a pearly white opacity in the upper outer quadrant of his TM. He currently has no symptoms and appears to be ok. The most likely diagnosis and appropriate managment would be:
tympanosclerosis; no treatment is necessary
persistent perforation; prescribe topical antibiotic drops
foreign body; perform an ear wash for removal
cholesteatoma; refer to otolaryngology
A 15 mo failed treatment with amoxicillin for OM. At his 2 week re-check his TM remained red with distorted landmarks and he persisted with nasal congestion, poor sleep, and fever. The next best step would be to treat with:
a 10 day course of augmentin
a 3 week course of cephalosporin
a higher dose of amoxicillin and topical abx
ceftriaxone and an antihistamine
All but which one of the following patients are at an increased risk of developing otitis media?
2 yo with cleft palate repair at 1 year of age
15 mo with down syndrome
9 mo with lactose intolerance
3 yo with IgA immune deficiency
Patients with otitis externa should be instructed to do which one of the following:
keep ear dry until symptoms improve
limit swimming for the remainder of summer
wear ear plugs at all times with swimming
use alcohol drops before swimming each day
A 10 yo has marked ear pain, not wanting anyone to touch his ear. The canal is edematous and exudate is present. TM is normal. How should this be managed?
oral steroids and topical neomycin
oral amoxicillin and topical anesthetic
oral amoxicillin and topical steroid
A 16 yo was hit in the eye 1 day ago and now has ecchymoses on the upper and lower lids with 5/10 eye pain. All but which of the following would be appropriate to obtain at this time:
The greatest risk in a patient with a hyphema is which of the following?
Corneal abrasions can be managed with topical application of which of the following:
anesthetic for pain control
steroids to prevent adhesions
antibiotics to prevent infection
atropine to prevent ciliary spasm
Trauma to the eye increases the risk of developing all but which one of the following?
Fluorescein staining of the eye is used to detect a:
Prematurity increases the risk of developing which one of the following?
A 3 month old has a mild asymmetrical corneal light reflex on physical exam. What is the next appropriate step?
observe and reevaluate at the next well check
refer immediately to ophthalmology
begin atropine drops or eye patching
protect eyes from sunlight
Which of the following may cause microcephaly?
What finding may accompany macrocephaly?
Pulsating anterior fontanel
Premature closure of suture lines
Widened suture lines
Obtaining a CT of the head would be indicated in which of these conditions?
Which one of the following conditions increases the risk of developing hydrocephalus?
A conjunctivitis appearing in a 2 day old newborn is likely due to:
chemical irritation from eye drops
group B streptocuccus
Confirming the diagnosis of chlamydia conjunctivitis in a newborn would best be done by obtaining which one of the following?
cervical swab of the mother
urine PCR from the mother
culture of the eye discharge
culture of the conjunctival scrapings
Which one of the following eye findings would be considered an ophthalmic emergency?
unilateral vesicular lesions on the upper eyelid of a 3 week old
presence of chemosis in a 5 yo with bilateral upper eyelid edema
cobblestone-like appearance along the inner aspect of the upper eyelid in a 15 yo
bilateral redness along the eyelid margins with tiny ulcerated areas in a 16 yo
The most appropriate management of a 5 yo with a firm, nontender nodule in the mid-upper eyelid for 3 weeks would be:
topical ophthalmic ointment
Daily eyelid cleansing with diluted baby shampoo and a cotton tipped applicator would be appropriate in the treatment of which one of the following conditions?
A 3 year old has an edematous, mildly erythematous right upper eyelid for one day with a fever of 103. An important eye assessment would be:
optic disk papilledema
Concurrent otitis media and conjunctivitis is likely due to which organism?
A 16 yo girl makes the following statements to you during her health visit. Which of the following pieces of information should not be kept confidential?
I have been sexually active with three of my boyfriends
I sometimes smoke marijuana
I want to get pregnant
Sometimes I feel like ending my life
In performing a physical examination on a nine month old infant, which of the following developmental fears would not be appropriate for you to consider?
Separation from parents
When performing a physical examination on a toddler, which of the following body parts would you examine last:
Heart and lungs
abdomen and genitals
Ears and throat
Hips and extremities
Role play with equipment during the course of a physical examination would be most beneficial with which of the following age groups:
Young school-age children
Older school-age children
Providing reassurance of "normalcy" during the course of an examination would be most important for:
Young school-age children
Older school-age children
Which of the following would not elevate the pulse of a child:
The PNP recognizes which of the following signs as indicators that baby is not receiving sufficient breastmilk?
Sleepiness, jaundice, decreased urine and stool
Diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting
Bulging fontanel and irritability
Sleeplessness and excitability
Blood pressure should be measured at WCC beginning at age:
A wide pulse pressure that results from a high systolic blood pressure is usually not due to which of the following:
A patent ductus arteriosus
Head and chest circumferences should be equal at:
The anterior fontanel usually closes by:
Diffuse edema of the soft tissue of the scalp which usually crosses suture lines in the newborn is:
An infant should no longer have head lag when pulled from the supine to sitting position at what age?
"Boggy" nasal mucous membranes with serous drainage upon examination usually suggests:
A white instead of red reflex upon eye examination of a 1 yo child would suggest:
An accommodative error
A cobblestone appearance of the palpebral conjunctiva usually indicates:
An eye that deviates in when covered but returns to midline when uncovered is an:
Pain produced by manipulation of the auricle or pressure on the tragus suggests:
Acute otitis media
Otitis media with effusion
A hypernasal voice and snoring in a child is suggestive of:
Polyps of the larynx
Physiological splitting of the second heart sound during inspiration in a child:
should be evaluated with an EKG
Should be referred to a cardiologist
Which of the following is not characteristic of innocent heart murmurs in children?
Systolic in timing
Varies in loudness with positioning
Usually transmitted to the neck
Usually loudest at lower left sternal border or at second or third intercostal space
A grade II musical or vibratory murmur heard best at the lower left sternal border that changes with positioning is suggestive of a:
Pulmonary ejection murmur
Ventricular septal defect
Vibratory or Still's murmur
Wheezing in a child may not be found in which of the following conditions:
Pleural friction rub
Gynecomastia in a male may not be a finding in which of the following:
Normal pubertal development
Which of the following would usually not be considered a sign of a pituitary tumor in an adolescent female?
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
Loss of peripheral vision
Increase in headaches
Which of the following is not a specific examination test for a dislocated hip?
In addition to the knee, which of the following should be examined in a child complaining of knee pain?
Which of the following infant reflexes should not disappear by 6 months of age?
Spasticity in an infant may be an early sign of:
A shift to the left is present when which of the following are elevated?
Bands or stabs
Which of the following is usually elevated with viral infections?
Decreased platelets may not be found in which of the following:
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Medication usage (e.g. ampicillin, cephalothin)
Which of the following does not suggest a urinary tract infection?
Samenvatting Belastingrecht week 4 t/m 7 alles uitgebreid uitgewerkt (muv Boek)
Zeer uitgebreide samenvatting van week 4 t/m 7 (collegejaar 2018-2019). Alle hoorcolleges, werkcolleges en levensloopcasussen. Veel colleges zijn woord voor woord meegetypt.
Samenvatting van week 4. Een samenvatting van het boek, hoorcollege/ werkcollege aantekeningen en samenvattingen van de artikelen. Bevat ook de bijbehorende begrippen en tijden.
ENGLISH! Samenvatting Week 4: 3.5. Eating, Sex and Other Needs
Samenvatting van alle literatuur van 3.5. Eating, Sex and Other Needs Week 4. De literatuur omvat de DSM-5 over de seksuele disfuncties, Frühauf, Easton, Bancroft, Torrisi, en Zemishlany. De samenvatting is vrij uitgebreid, dat is dus heel persoonlijk of je dat fijn vindt.
GZC III: WEEK 4
Dit is de volledige Samenvatting van week 4 van blok GZC 3. Alle HC, WC, WG, PR, IC, etc. zijn hierin opgenomen. Met veel handige plaatjes.
NIP antwoordschema\'s week 4 & 5 Beethoven
Tentamens maken is een kunst: veel studenten weten het antwoord wel, maar slepen niet alle punten binnen. Met deze antwoordschema’s leer je zowel hoe je de tentamenvragen moet beantwoorden, als de kernstof van het vak. Elk belangrijk leerstuk van het vak wordt besproken in een antwoordschema met:
- Eerst een algemene inleiding (wat is het juridische leerstuk, welke wetgeving en jurisprudentie e.d. zijn van belang);
- Dan de toepassing (toepassen van de vereisten uit de wetgeving en jurisprudentie op alle mogelijke varianten van het leerstuk, niet slechts de variant die in de werkgroepopdrachten stond);
- Ten slotte een conclusie (ja, het was moord / nee, er was geen onrechtmatige daad etc.).
Als je je tentamenvragen beantwoordt zoals in de antwoordschema’s staat, sleep je alle punten binnen en heb je de kunst van het tentamens maken onder de knie.
De thema\'s die worden behandeld zijn: rol van de rechter & partijen, toepasselijk recht, de cassatieprocedure, incassozaken, aantasting uitspraken en grensoverschrijdende betalingsprocedures
Nationaal en internationaal procederen (NIP), Erasmus Universiteit Rotterdam, master Privaatrecht
Leerdoelen Oncologische zorg week 4
In dit document zijn de leerdoelen van week 4 uitgewerkt van de profileringscursus Oncologische Zorg. Het hoorcollege \\\"Overleven na kanker\\\" van de ervaringsdeskundige is niet uitgewerkt. Wel de colleges Gastro-enterologische chirurgie, voeding bij kanker en chirurgische ontwikkelingen.
De algemene strafrechtspraktijk - Week 4
Dit document bevat de literatuur, aantekeningen van het hoorcollege en uitwerkingen van de werkgroep van week 4.
Samenvatting alle literatuur deeltoets 1 & deeltoets 2 & alle hoorcolleges (week 1 t/m week 5), blok 4 HRM leerjaar 1
Samenvatting van de gehele stof van deeltoets 1 en deeltoets 2 en de stof van de hoorcolleges van heel blok 4, HRM, leerjaar 1.
Literatuur week 4 Sport & Samenleving
Nederlandse samenvatting van de verplichte literatuur uit week 4:
- Haan & Norman (forthcoming) Mind the gap
- Spaaij (2015) Refugee youth, belonging and community sport
- Coackely & Pike Hoofdstuk 8
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam (Version 1)
Question 1: Which of the following is a crucial element of developing a guideline?
a. Creating a physician expert panel
b. Reviewing the literature with ratings of available evidence
c. Conducting an external review of a guideline
d. Developing evidence-based tables
Question 2: African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications?
a. Inhaled corticosteroids
b. Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators
c. Leukotriene receptor agonist
d. Oral corticosteroid
Question 3: Jolene has breast cancer that has been staged as T1, N0, M0. What might this mean?
a. The tumor size cannot be evaluated, the cancer has not spread to the lymph nodes, and the distant spread cannot be evaluated.
b. The cancer is in situ, it is spreading into the lymph nodes, but the spread otherwise cannot be evaluated.
c. The cancer is less than 2 cm in size and has not spread to the lymph nodes or other parts of the body.
d. The cancer is about 5 cm in size, nearby lymph nodes cannot be evaluated, and there is no evidence of distant spreading.
Question 4: Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?
Question 5: Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart that is in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:
a. Filiform/digitate wart.
b. Dysplastic cervical lesion.
c. Condyloma accuminata.
Question 6: Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?
b. Alzheimer\'s disease
c. Parkinson\'s disease
Question 7: You have taught Jennifer, age 15, about using a flow meter to assess how to manage her asthma exacerbations. She calls you today because her peak expiratory flow rate is 65%. What would you tell her?
a. \"Take your short-acting beta-2 agonist, remain quiet, and call back tomorrow.\"
b. \"Use your rescue inhaler, begin the prescription of oral glucocorticoids you have, and call back tomorrow.\"
c. \"Drive to the emergency room (ER) now.\"
d. \"Call 911.\"
Question 8: A patient is seen in the clinic with hematuria confirmed on microscopic examination. The clinician should inquire about the ingestion of which of these substances that might be the cause of hematuria?
c. Vitamin A
d. Red meat
Question 9: Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with chronic renal failure?
a. Fluid restriction
b. Hemodialysis 4 days a week
c. High-protein diet
d. Maintain blood pressure at 120/80
Question 10: Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?
b. Increased sperm quality
c. Bladder cancer
Question 11: A chronic cough lasts longer than:
a. 3 weeks
b. 1 month
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
Question 12: The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?
b. Alzheimer\'s disease
c. A CVA
d. Bell\'s palsy
Question 13: When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?
Question 14: Which ethnic group has the highest lung cancer incidence and mortality rates?
a. African American men
b. Scandinavian men and women
c. Caucasian women
d. Asian men
Question 15: The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with eﬀusion is:
c. Viral upper respiratory infection (URI)
d. Perforation of the eardrum
Question 16: Samuel is going to the dentist for some work and must take endocarditis prophylaxis because of his history of:
a. Severe asthma.
b. A common valvular lesion.
c. Severe hypertension.
d. A previous coronary artery bypass graft (CABG).
Question 17: A 34-year-old patient was treated for a urinary tract infection (UTI) and has not responded to antibiotic therapy. Which of the following actions should be taken next?
a. Send a urine specimen for microscopy looking for fungal colonies.
b. Increase the dose of antibiotic.
c. Order a cytoscopy.
d. Order a different antibiotic.
Question 18: Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?
a. It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.
b. A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.
c. A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.
d. The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.
Question 19: Which statement is true regarding chloasma, the ‘mask of pregnancy’?
a. It is caused by a decrease in the melanocyte-stimulating hormone duringpregnancy.
b. This condition only occurs on the face.
c. Exposure to sunlight will even out the discoloration.
d. It is caused by increased levels of estrogen and progesterone.
Question 20: Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?
a. \"You must be under a lot of stress lately.\"
b. \"It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?\"
c. \"The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.\"
d. \"We\'ll have to do some tests.\"
Question 21: A blood pressure (BP) of 150/90 is considered:
a. Stage 2 hypertension
c. Normal in healthy older adults
d. Acceptable if the patient has DM
Question 22: When teaching post MI patients about their NTG tablets, theclinician should stress that the tablets should remain in thelight-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and shouldnot be put in another pill box or remain in areas that are orcould become warm and humid. Once opened, the bottlemust be dated and discarded after how many months?
a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. As long as the tablets are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever
Question 23: Your patient has decided to try to quit smoking with Chantix. You are discussing his quit date, and he will begin taking the medicine tomorrow. When should he plan to quit smoking?
a. He should stop smoking today.
b. He should stop smoking tomorrow.
c. His quit date should be in 1 week.
d. He will be ready to quit after the Frst 30 days
Question 24: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
d. Epithelial cells
Question 25: The hallmark of an absence seizure is:
a. No activity at all.
b. A blank stare.
c. Urine is usually voided involuntarily.
d. The attack usually lasts several minutes.
Question 26: Which medication used for scabies is safe for children 2 months and older?
a. Permethrin cream
c. Crotamiton lotion and cream
Question 27: The clinician is seeing a patient complaining of red eye. The clinician suspects conjunctivitis. The presence of mucopurulent discharge suggests which type of conjunctivitis?
a. Viral conjunctivitis
c. Bacterial conjunctivitis
d. Allergic conjunctivitis
Question 28: Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?
a. \"Most patients have complete recovery in a few weeks to a few months.\"
b. \"Unfortunately, you\'ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.\"
c. \"Don\'t worry, I\'ll take care of everything.\"
d. \"You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.\"
Question 29: How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures and the drug level is adequate
a. Every 3 months
b. Every 6 months
d. Whenever there is a problem
Question 30: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
Question 31: The result of the patient’s 24-hour urine for protein was 4.2 g/day. The clinician should take which of the following actions?
a. Repeat the test.
b. Refer to a nephrologist.
c. Measure the serum protein.
d. Obtain a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.
Question 32: Which cranial nerve is afected in a patient with acerebrovascular accident who has diﬃculty chewing?
a. CN V
b. CN VII
c. CN IX
d. CN X
Question 33: Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered for a patient suspected of having bladder cancer?
a. KUB (kidneys, ureter, bladder) x-ray
b. Cystoscopy with biopsy
c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d. Urine tumor marker (NMP22)
Question 34: The “B” in the ABCDEs of assessing skin cancer represents:
a. Biopsy. c. Boundary.
b. Best practice. d. Border irregularity.
Question 35: Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?
a. Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients mustnever drive again.
b. After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.
c. Each state has diferent laws governing driving forindividuals with a seizure disorder.
d. These persons may drive but never alone.
Question 36: Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?
a. Greater than 30
b. Greater than 40
c. Greater than 50
d. Greater than 60
Question 37: The most common cause of CAP is?
a. Incorrect octane gasoline
b. A loose gas cap
c. A clogged muffler
d. A bad spark plug
Question 38: Sandra has palpitations that occur with muscle twitching, paresthesia, and fatigue. What specific diagnostic test might help determine the cause?
a. Serum calcium
b. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
c. Thyroid-stimulating hormone test
d. Complete blood cell count
Question 39: A patient presents to the clinician with a sore throat, fever of 100.7?F, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The clinician suspects strep throat and performs a rapid strep test that is negative. What would the next step be?
a. The patient should be instructed to rest and increase fluid intake as the infection is most likely viral and will resolve without antibiotic treatment.
b. Because the patient does not have strep throat, the clinician should start broad spectrum antibiotics in order to cover the offending pathogen.
c. A throat culture should be performed to confirm the results of the rapid strep test.
d. The patient should be treated with antibiotics for strep throat as the rapid strep test is not very sensitive.
Question 40: Patients with acute otitis media should be referred to a specialist in which of the following situations?
a. Concurrent vertigo or ataxia
b. Failed closure of a ruptured tympanic membrane
c. If symptoms worsen after 3 or 4 days of treatment
d. All of the above
Question 41: Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of chronic renal failure (CRF)?
a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine
c. Creatinine clearance
Question 42: Marci has a wart on her hand. She says she heard something about “silver duct tape therapy.” What do you tell her about his?
a. It is an old wives\' tale.
b. It is used as a last resort.
c. Salicylic acid is more effective.
d. It is a simple treatment that should be tried first.
Question 43: What is the first-line recommended treatment against Group A b-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS), the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis?
Question 44: Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?
a. Perforation of the tympanic membrane
Question 45: Which of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”
a. An ulcer
b. A fissure
d. An excoriation
Question 46: A 65-year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night visio0n, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open-angle glaucoma?
a. The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma.
b. The clinician can definitively diagnosis open-angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient.
c. Physical diagnosis relies on goniscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist.
d. Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occurred to the optic nerve.
Question 47: The majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?
Question 48: A patient is seen with a sudden onset of ±ank painaccompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. Inaddition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should beadded to the list of diferential diagnoses?
b. Peptic ulcer disease
d. All of the above
Question 49: Which of the following is abundant in the heart and rapidly rises in the bloodstream in the presence of heart failure, making it a good diagnostic test?
a. B-type natriuretic peptide
b. C-reactive protein
c. Serum albumin
d. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Question 50: You are doing a cerumen extraction and touch the external meatus of your patient’s ear. He winces and starts coughing. What is the name of this reflex?
a. Baker phenomenon
b. Arnold reflex
c. cough reflex
d. Tragus reflex