NURS 6630N

NURS-6630N Week 11 Final Exam Questions and Answers Latest Update

A. It will bind to the alpha-2-delta ligand subunit of voltage-sensitive calcium channels. A patient with hypersexual disorder is being assessed for possible pharmacologic treatment. Why does the PMHNP prescribe an antiandrogen for this patient? Selected Answer: C. It will block testosterone. Which statement best describes a pharmacological approach to treating patients for impulsive aggression? Selected Answer: D. Opioid antagonists can be ...

nes A patient addicted to heroin is receiving treatment for detoxification. He begins to experience tachycardia, tremors, and diaphoresis. What medication will the PMHNP prescribe for this patient? Selected Answer: D. Clonidine (Catapres) The PMHNP prescribes gabapentin (Neurontin) for a patient’s chronic pain. How does the PMHNP anticipate the drug to work? Selected Answer: A. It will bind to the alpha-2-delta ligand subunit of voltage-sensitive calcium...

NURS-6630N Test Week 11 Final Exam

NURS-6630N-30-Approaches to Treatment

Week 11 Final Exam - NURS-6630N-

Question 1 1 out of 1 points Mr. McCullin is 64 years old with Parkinson’s disease. The PMHNP caring for Mr. McCullin wants to start him on a dopamine agonist to help manage and treat his condition. The PHMNP selects this agent because of which action it has on patients like Mr. McCullin? Selected Answer: D. D2 receptors are the primary binding site for dopamine agonists.  Question 2 1 out of 1 points Ms. Hill is currently being treated for schizophrenia but has stopped taking...

NURS 6630N MIDTERM EXAM EXPLAINED

NURS 6630-7 WEEK 6 MIDTERM EXAM WALDEN

NURS 6630N MIDTERM EXAM WEEK 6 WALDEN (Week 6 Midterm Exam WITH WELL EXPLAINED ANSWERS)