Sudden onset of severe Study guides, Class notes & Summaries

Exam 3: NSG555 / NSG 555 (Latest 2024 / 2025 Update) - Nurse Practitioners in Primary Care II Exam | Complete Guide with Questions and Verified Answers | All Modules Covered | 100% Correct | Grade A - Wilkes Q: A postmenopausal female patient has a blood test that reveals hyperuricemia, although the patient has no symptoms of gout. What will the provider do initially? Ask the patient about medications and medical history Begin therapy with colchicine and an NSAID Recommend a low-purine, alcohol-...

NSG 120 Final Exam Questions with Correct Answers Pathogenesis - Answer-The development of the disease or the sequence of events involved in the tissue changes related to the specific disease process. Onset - Answer-sudden OR acute- An acute disease indicates a short-term illness that develops quickly with marked signs such as high fever or severe pain—for example, acute appendicitis; onset may be insidious, best described as a gradual progression with only vague or very mild signs. ...

NEW GENERATION(NGN) NCLEX QUESTIONS & Answers FOR 2023 EXAM   All Answers are correct. All the Best! The New Gen Nclex has 150 questions 1. A nurse is caring for a patient with diabetes. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when administering insulin? Select all that apply. A. Verify the correct dose with another nurse. B. Administer insulin via intramuscular injection. C. Monitor the patient's blood glucose level. D. Check the expiration date of the insul...

NUR 305 ATI Med Surg Neurosensory Exam Questions And Answers Graded A+ Assured Success New Update 2023/2024 With Rationales. ATI Medical/Surgical Neurosensory AH1 A nurse is collecting data from a client who has a brain tumor. Which of the following indicates cranial nerve involvement? A. Dysphagia B. Positive Babinski sign C. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes D. Ataxia Rationale: Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, can occur as a result of damage to cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal) o...

NRNP 6675/ NRNP6675 Midterm Exam Quiz Bank (2023/ 2024) | Complete Guide| Questions and Verified Answers 1. Which of the following is not consistent with benzo withdrawal? - Answer: B) The best way to proceed with benzo withdrawal is to stop it immediately and tx withdrawal s/s 2. Which of the following is true about the legal practice of the PMHNP? - Answer: D) A&B only A) all have some degrees of prescriptive privileges i...

Exam 2: NSG554/ NSG 554 (Latest 2023/ 2024) - Nurse Practitioners in Primary Care I Exam Review| Complete Guide with Verified Answers| 100% Correct Q: Procedures for: Herpes simplex Answer: § Definitive test- viral culture § A Tzanck test is a rapid way to confirm the diagnosis of zoster in the provider's office but does not distinguish between VZV and HSV. The Tzanck test with Wright or Giemsa stains can uncover multinucleated giant cells that are typical of herpes simplex or varice...

-decreased LOC(lethargy to coma) -restlessness, irritability, confusion -headache -projectile N&V -change in speech pattern/slurred speech -dilated nonreactive pupils or constructed nonreactive pupils -ataxia -seizure -abnormal posturing -Cushing's triad: severe HTN, widened pulse pressure, bradycardia Key sx of increased ICP - Symptoms of increased ICP -severe HTN, widened pulse pressure, bradycardia What is Cushing's triad - Most at risk during 1st 72 hours after stroke onset ...

MED-SURGE HESI RN 1. A client on telemetry has a pattern of uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response. Based on this finding, the nurse anticipates assisting the physician with which treatment? A. Administer lidocaine, 75 mg intravenous push. B. Perform synchronized cardioversion. C. Defibrillate the client as soon as possible. D. Administer atropine, 0.4 mg intravenous push. Rationale: With uncontrolled atrial fibrillation, the treatment of choice is synchronized...

Relias ED RN A Test Questions with 100% Correct Answers Updated & Verified What is the current recommended dose of intravenous or intraosseous epinephrine in adult patients with cardiac arrest? 10 mg every 10 minutes 1 mg every 3-5 minutes 1 mg every 7 minutes 0.1 mg every 2 minutes 1 mg every 3-5 minutes A patient with a traumatic brain injury (TBI) is MOST likely to suffer from what condition? Diabetes mellitus Cerebral palsy Diabetes Insipidus Myxedema coma Diabetes Insipidu...

NUR 265 Exam 2 Study Guide 2023 With Complete 100%Correct Solutions. NUR 265 Exam 2 Study Guide Lungs Physiology  2 Pleural, 1 attached to outside of lungs and 1 attached to inside of ribs.  Space between the 2 pleural is negative to atmosphere  When inhale becomes more positive and atmosphere more negative. Exhaling is passive  Most of lower lobes are posterior, must listen to lungs posteriorly  Breath sounds o Bronchial: High pitched & loud, normal in tracheal & larynx ...